THE CLAIM
The claim
by many Christians is that Isaiah 53 prophesied that the messiah would be
killed (Matthew 57:50) and then buried in a rich man’s tomb. This is based on
Matthew 27:57-60 which reads (KJV):
And when the even was come, there came a rich man of Arimathaea, named
Joseph, who also himself was Jesus’ disciple;
He went to Pilate and begged the body of Jesus. The Pilate commanded the
body to be delivered.
And when Joseph had taken the body, he wrapped it in a clean linen
cloth,
And laid it in his own tomb, which he had hewn out in the rock; and he
rolled a great stone to the door of the sepulchre, and departed.
There are those
who claim that this fulfilled a prophecy in Isaiah 53:9, which says none of
this, at least in the Greek and the Hebrew versions (Masoretic and Dead Sea
Scroll versions).
ISAHAI 53:9
First, here
is the KJV version:
“And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death;
because he had done no violence, neither was there any deceit in his mouth.”
The latter
half after “BECAUSE” doesn’t make a lot of sense. He was killed and buried
because he was non-violent and honest?
Now let’s
look at the Greek Version, translated from the Lexham English Septuagint:
“And I will give the wicked in place of his tomb, and the wealthy in
place of death, because he committed no lawlessness, and there was no deceit in
his mouth.
This makes
more sense, that the wicked and the wealth were being killed instead of the
protagonist because he, not they, was innocent to be given such a fate.
Now let’s
move onto the Hebrew. There is one difference (other than the errors in writing
the text) in that the scribe originally wrote “wealthy” in the plural form, and
then the pluralization suffix was scrapped away to adjust it to the normal
singular. Although, traditionally, even though it is singular, we read it as if
it is plural. It’s a small difference. To see images of the scribal problems
for this verse, click on
this link where I show screen prints of the different issues, none of which
are dramatic.
So, here’s
a correct translation of the Hebrew (mine):
“And he cast the wicked and the wealthy into his burying place with its
dead ones, because he had done no violence, and there was no deceit in his
mouth.”
(Note, I
give a 5 minute explanation of why my translation is accurate at this YouTube link).
So, this is
definitely not what Matthew is describing at all. There is vengeance by
[someone/Someone] against the bad people who, unlike the protagonist, deserved
death.
COMMENTARY
There are
no capital letters in Hebrew, so “he” or “He” and “his” or “His” don’t indicate
if this is a person, a people, or God killing these people, nor do we know if “his
grave” refers to the mass grave with all of its dead ones means it belonged to
a person, a people, or God (the latter might make it a euphemism for Sheol, the
realm of the dead, which is often a biblical euphemism for “being killed”.
But in any
case, Matthew does not fulfill the retributional verse of Isaiah 53:9, which is
referring to Babylon before it gets decimated (something mentioned by Isaiah
and other prophets). And the killing of the wealthy is likely the source for
later one, when God tells the protagonist that he gets a share in the physical
booty looted.
So, no, the
claim that “buried in the tomb of a rich man” is a prophecy and that it was fulfilled
is blatantly false.
Here’s the
meme used.